Abolished at the Cross

Abolished at Calvary?

Many proclaim boldly that the Law of God was done away at the cross. But Jesus said, "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." -Matthew 5:18

Why do so many believe the lie when Jesus said what He said? It has to do with a twist they put on Ephesians 2:15 which says, “Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances;..."

So many like to assume the “law of commandments contained in ordinances” is also the Ten Commandments. But are they correct? Is this the ten commandments contained in stone that’s being spoken of here? To find the truth on this we need to look a bit deeper into what the Author of this truth said when speaking of His law. Jesus actually said in Matthew 5:17, "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil."

Two things stand out quite boldly in this passage. First and foremost is the fact Jesus clearly says He has not come to “destroy” the law at all. Abolishment of the law is in fact a way to cast it away. But what does the word destroy really mean in this passage?

DESTROY: 2647 kataluo {kat-al-oo'-o} from 2596 and 3089; TDNT - 4:338,543; v
AV - destroy 9, throw down 3, lodge 1, guest 1, come to nought 1, overthrow 1, dissolve 1; 17

To be fair, let’s look back at the word “abolish” in Ephesians 2:15 to see if in fact there are any similarities with the word destroy.

ABOLISH: 2673 katargeo {kat-arg-eh'-o} from 2596 and 691; TDNT - 1:452,76; v
AV - destroy 5, do away 3, abolish 3, cumber 1, loose 1, cease 1, fall 1, deliver 1, misc 11; 27

Seems rather obvious to me that the word abolish and destroy can actually be used interchangeably in this manner. In other words, Jesus could have easily said I have not come to destroy the law or He could have said I have not come to abolish it either. Both words could have been used. That means, the law contained in ordinances can’t possibly be the same Law Jesus is referring to in Matthew chapter five. Because if it is; then either Paul or Jesus Himself is lying here. And we know this can’t be. So, let’s look at the other word Jesus uses in Matthew chapter five to see what He really meant. As we saw, He said "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil." We know what the word destroy means. But what about that word fulfill?

FULFILL: 4137 pleroo {play-ro'-o} from 4134; TDNT - 6:286,867; v
AV - fulfil 51, fill 19, be full 7, complete 2, end 2, misc 9; 90

Many say the word “fulfill” means “do away with .. destroy.. or abolish” right? To clarify the word fulfill here, which actually means to complete something; let’s look at another verse that uses the same word “fulfill” to see if they are right in assuming it means to destroy or abolish. In Matthew 3:15 it says, "And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him."

Obviously they are taking to verse out of context as well as twisting the definition of the word fulfill. If the word fulfill means to destroy or abolish as they define it in Matthew chapter five, then this verse should read like this to them… And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to DESTROY OR ABOLISH all righteousness. Then he suffered him." Does that sound like Jesus? No, not at all. In fact, it sounds like His enemy if you ask me.

By the way, the word “fulfill” in Matthew 5:17 is the same exact word that is being used here in Matthew 3:15. Both words are from the Greek word “play-ro'-o .” It’s that easy at times to prove someone is twisting the Word. But to further clarify, how long did Jesus say we should keep the Law that He said was not to be abolished? Do you remember the verse I used to start this sermon? He said in Matthew 5:18, "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."

By the way, this is one verse those that declare it abolished at Calvary can never answer. It puts them in their place each and every time. In fact, once you use it to prove the truth to them they will ignore it and choose to twist another verse out of context to try and shore up their heresy by manipulating the conversation. Don’t let them do it. Repeat the passage and ask them to define it before moving on. One can see that this verse alone proves it could not have been the Commandments that were abolished on Calvary. But, as expected, we have more than one way to skin this cat of deception.

Three and a half years after the cross of Jesus we see Stephen stoned. Who is standing in that crowd consenting unto his death? It says in Acts 8:1, "And Saul was consenting unto his death. And at that time there was a great persecution against the church which was at Jerusalem; and they were all scattered abroad throughout the regions of Judaea and Samaria, except the apostles."

As we also know, years later Saul becomes Paul and goes forth preaching as Jesus Christ instructed Him via his vision on the road to Damascus as well as under the tutelage of the Apostles thereafter. That being the case; if the Law of God was abolished on Calvary, why does Paul say in Romans 7:12 that "Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good."

One would think that if the Law of God was abolished Paul would have mentioned it. Better yet, if it was abolished, Jesus Himself while visiting Paul on the road to Damascus would have intimated as such or at the very least would have sent His Holy Spirit to the apostles who taught Paul before he went forth to preach. But what does Paul think of the Law after meeting Jesus on that road and then being taught by His apostles? Paul says in Romans 7:22, "For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:"

When we as Christians keep the Law, what do we tell others by our obedient actions? Better yet, what do we tell the Lord by our obedient actions? Jesus said in John 14:15, "If ye love me, keep my commandments." And His favored apostle John said in 1 John 5:3, "For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous."

Remember what Ephesians 2:15 said a few moments ago? It said, “Having abolished in his flesh the enmity even the law of commandments contained in ordinances;..."

The word “enmity” comes from the Greek word, “echthra” (Strong’s # 2189) and it means hatred. That being the case, how can the Ten Commandments, that is called holy, just, good as well as not grievous and the obvious fruit of love from and toward God be considered “enmity” and or “hatred” and worthy of Christ’s abolishment?

And no, please don’t blame the preachers and teachers that spew his lies. Ephesians 6:12 says, "For we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places."

So.. if the Law was abolished, then as satan planned, people think there is no more sin in the World, for it is written in Romans 4:15, "Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression." It also says in Romans 5:13, "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law."

But the basic reality that everyone of us have witnessed first-hand is, there IS sin in the world, and to say otherwise exposes the one claiming as such to be a liar for it is also written in 1 John 1:8, "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us."

So what about Colossians 2:14-17?

So, since we know for a biblical fact that the Law of God was not abolished at the cross, what law is Ephesians 2:15 speaking of when it says…"Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances;..."

The obvious here is that the verse states plainly that it was the Commandments contained in ORDINANCES that was abolished at the cross. Not the Ten Commandments which were written in stone. But let’s dig a bit deeper for a moment so as to remove all doubt. And we can dig by using one more area in the Word that is often used by the scoffer to preach the Law abolished. It actually helps us prove they are in error.

Colossians 2:14-17, "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ."

Is it the Ten Commandments that are being spoken of in this verse? If so, why are there ORDINANCES being mentioned here? Is it not written in Galatians 3:19 that these ordinances were "added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made" That means the ordinances are to be temporary. The word “till” denotes they will be done away with at some time. And keep in mind, this passage is speaking about ordinances after the Law was already written in stone. Reading the Word as it was written, one can see that it's rather blunt here as to why the "ordinances" were added. Their sinfulness required the addition of the ordinances. However, it also states they were added TILL the seed should come. And who was this seed? Galatians 3:16 says, "And to thy seed, which is Christ"

Galatians 3:16, "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ."

In other words, the ordinances were added to prepare the people for the FIRST arrival of Messiah. It was something that personified the removal of sin. By obedience to the ordinances, the people of God showed their faith in the coming Messiah who would free them from their sins and would actually fulfill the ordinances in reality. When Jesus died on the cross the ordinances were no longer needed because he fulfilled them all and sin finally found the eternal remedy for forgiveness. They kept the ordinances to proclaim their faith that there would come a day when the ordinances would all be fulfilled by MESSIAH and their sins forgiven. This is why Satan has many claiming we must keep the feast days now. He is doing all he can to make people question what happened at Calvary. By keeping the feast days now, is to proclaim Messiah has yet to come to fulfill those ordinances. This also sets up those that keep the feast days to accept Satan as messiah when he stands on earth imitating Jesus. The fact they belittle His prophesied sacrifice on that cross by keeping the feast days that pointed to Cavalry in the first place confirms they will accept Satan as messiah.

The "ordinances" were a series of laws that Moses penned to prepare the people for the "things to come” as well as an outline on what to do and what not to do. Exodus 18:20 says, "And thou shalt teach them ordinances and laws, and shalt shew them the way wherein they must walk, and the work that they must do."

Did you notice that “ordinances” AND “laws” is mentioned here? That being said, how can the law be the same as the ordinance and vice versa? They are perfectly separated here in that verse. Fact is, the word "ordinance" is NOT the same as the word "Law" at all.

Did you notice that in verse 16 of Colossians 2 it states, "...Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink..." The word "therefore" in this passage denotes that it is speaking of the previous topic of the ordinances. Since this is a basic understanding of simple grammar, I have to ask, WHERE in the TEN COMMANDMENTS does it speak of "meat and drink" offerings? Nowhere! The ceremonial law, or the “commandments contained in ORDINACES” however speaks volumes on meat and drink laws.

So, it is impossible that the "ordinances" and the ten commandments are the same thing as many claim when they say the “law contained in ordinances” means the ten commandments were abolished at the cross.

Also notice that nowhere in the Ten Commandments do we see any mention of, "holydays or new moons" as this passage declares is PART of the "ordinances" as well. It’s truly that easy to explain if given the chance. The ordinances simply speak of holy rituals performed by an obedient people before Messiah came and actually fulfilled those events symbolized in the ordinances on that cross. And Jesus even declared then “FINISHED” on the cross. John 19:30 clearly says "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."

To further confirm “it is finished” when it came to the temple services or commandments contained in ordinances, what else happened that day when Jesus said “it is finished” that further confirms the feast days performed in the temple were abolished? It says in Matthew 27:50-51, "Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;" The prophecy of Daniel 9:26-27 was at that moment fulfilled in that "And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off... And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate."

By the way, if you read Acts 15 you will find how the Jews tried to get the new believers, including the Gentiles, to continue in the act of circumcision so as to plant the seed of doubt just as those that do feast days do today. But that too was abolished at the cross. To continue that act would also question what Christ did on Calvary.

To summarize quickly what was revealed to the church at that time in Acts 15, circumcision was an act that "cut off" a portion of the flesh to symbolize giving of one's self to God by denying the sinfulness of the flesh. Jesus was Messiah, and as Daniel stated, He was to be "cut off" for the sins of the people. The way Daniel spoke as he did in this prophecy regarding Jesus, as well as any prophet before or after him; proves the Old Testament people were just as much believers in Jesus as the New Testament people were.

All the "meat, drink, holy days, new moons, & sabbaths" that Colossians 2 speaks of were all abolished at the cross, because Jesus fulfilled their purpose perfectly. And by the way... the "sabbaths" mentioned in Colossians here are not the weekly Sabbath of the Lord. Besides the fact that when you read Commandment #4 in Exodus 20:8-11 you see no mention of meat, drink, holy days, new moons. But you do see them mentioned when the annual Sabbaths or “feast days” as we now call them were described in the Word.

Prophecy itself confirms the feast days CEASED at the time of the cross. As we just read, in the "midst of the week" (3.5 yrs after Jesus was baptized) the Temple veil RIPPED completely in two. At that exact moment the "Lamb of God which taketh away the sins of the world" spoke from His very lips, "IT IS FINISHED"-John 19:30

Think about this as well... There were NO Jewish feast days BEFORE the Exodus from Egyptian bondage were there? And according to prophecy as well as Scripture speaking of the time of fulfillment, they ended perfectly when Jesus "finished" what He came to do for you and me, as well as all those that kept those feast days in faith BEFORE Calvary arrived in history. Just as He was cut off on that cross for our sins, the blood on the doorposts in Egypt also confirmed His blood was to be shed to lead us out of bondage. Back then, in Egypt, they were led out of slavery in an Atheistic land. At the cross, when the literal blood of the Lamb of God was spilled, we were all led out of the slavery of sin while in a godless walk. How I ask does one keep Passover now when the blood of the Lamb was already spilled 2000 years ago?

The reason Satan is moving people to declare the law of God abolished on Calvary instead of the ordinances is obvious. He simply wants to keep people in sin. The wording of that passage makes it easy for him to claim those “Sabbaths” mentioned there are the 7^th day Sabbath. But look in BOX #16 of the sermon notes. In there I have all of Leviticus 23:24-39 posted. No, I am not going to read all that now because it will take too long. But for those seeking to use this to share with others, I did highlight the fact that you can see 7 Sabbaths in a 22 day period proving those Sabbath can’t possibly be the weekly Sabbaths we keep now. AND, to further confirm these are the same annual Sabbaths mentioned in Colossians two, notice the meat and drink offerings mentioned just as they are mentioned in Colossians.

Leviticus 23:23-39, "And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, In the seventh month, in the first day of the month, shall ye have a sabbath, (sabbath #1 day #1) a memorial of blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation. Ye shall do no servile work therein: but ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD. And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Also on the tenth day of this seventh month there shall be a day of atonement: it shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall afflict your souls, and offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD. And ye shall do no work in that same day: for it is a day of atonement, to make an atonement for you before the LORD your God. For whatsoever soul it be that shall not be afflicted in that same day, he shall be cut off from among his people. And whatsoever soul it be that doeth any work in that same day, the same soul will I destroy from among his people. Ye shall do no manner of work: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings. It shall be unto you a sabbath of rest, (sabbath #2 day# 10) and ye shall afflict your souls: in the ninth day of the month at even, from even unto even, shall ye celebrate your sabbath.(sabbath #3 day #9) And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, The fifteenth day of this seventh month shall be the feast of tabernacles for seven days unto the LORD. On the first day shall be an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.(sabbath #4 day #15) Seven days ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD: on the eighth day shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD: it is a solemn assembly; and ye shall do no servile work therein.(sabbath #5 day #8) These are the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD, a burnt offering, and a meat offering, a sacrifice, and drink offerings, every thing upon his day: Beside the sabbaths of the LORD, and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the LORD. Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast unto the LORD seven days: on the first day shall be a sabbath, and on the eighth day shall be a sabbath."

FIVE "sabbaths" that are defined as "feast days" of the Lord in a 22 day period! How I ask can this passage, which coincides with Colossians chapter two be speaking of the seventh day Sabbath?

Fact is, IF this "law contained in ordinances" is the same as the "Law contained in stone" …then I ask for all those stating otherwise to share with me the commandment that is written within the Law that speaks of "meat and drink" offerings.

Want the ORDINANCES explained bluntly in New Testament theology? It says in Hebrews 9:1,10 "Then verily the first covenant had also ordinances of divine service, and a worldly sanctuary. Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation."

Those of us that have read the Bible know the Pharisees corrupted the truth so much that very few people in their day understood the truth and most were totally unaware that Jesus was the Messiah. When Jesus came He explained the truth to the people. The fact He opened up the Bible to them in ways the Pharisees could not or refused to do confirms it was a time of reformation. In fact, do you recall what Jesus said to Pilate when he asked Him if He was a king? In John 18:37 we read, "Pilate therefore said unto him, Art thou a king then? Jesus answered, Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness unto the truth. Every one that is of the truth heareth my voice."

No one on this planet can deny that the truth Jesus shared 2000 years ago changed the world from that day forward. To this day it still affects the hearts of people all over the world. And for Paul to use the word “reformation” here is perfect in that it is defined as “to make straight” in the Greek.

1357 diorthosis {dee-or'-tho-sis} from a compound of 1223 and a derivative of 3717, meaning to straighten thoroughly; TDNT - 5:450,727; n f
AV - reformation 1; 1
1) in a physical sense, a making straight, restoring to its natural and normal condition something which in some way protrudes or has got out of line, as broken or misshapen limbs
2) of acts and institutions, reformation

Remember John the Baptist’s message? It says in Matthew 3:1-3, "In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea, And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand. For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight."

This should sum it up nicely… Notice the table in box #19 of the sermon notes.

MOSES' LAW "Contained in Ordinances"	GOD'S LAW "Contained in stone"
Called "Law of Moses" Luke 2:22	Called "The law of the Lord" Isaiah 5:24
Called "Law contained in ordinances" Ephesians 2:15	Called "The royal law" James 2:8
Written by Moses in a book. 2Chronicals 35:12	Written by God in stone. Exodus 31:18; 32:16
Placed beside the Ark. Deuteronomy 31:26	Placed inside the ark. Exodus 40:20
Ended at the cross. Ephesians 2:15	Will stand forever. Luke 16:17
Added because of sin. Galatians 3:19	Points out sin. Romans 7:7; 3:20
Contrary to us, against us. Colossians 2:14-16	Not grievous. 1John 5:3
Carnal. Hebrews 7:16	Spiritual. Romans 7:14
Made nothing perfect. Hebrews 7:19	Perfect. Psalm 19:7
Judges no one. Colossians 2:14-16	Judges all people. James 2:10-12

As shared earlier, after speaking of the meat, drink, holy days and new moons Colossians 2:17 says these "are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ"

Let me ask you this, when I stand in front of a light source I cast a shadow, right? If you find that shadow I cast and follow it you will eventually come to my body, correct? Does my shadow continue on behind me? No, it stops at my body does it not?

All those feast days are shadows of things that Jesus did on Calvary. When you follow those shadows you will eventually come to see the body of Jesus Christ on the cross. There is no shadow beyond the cross. This is why the term “shadow” is used. To claim we need to keep the feats days after the cross is outside the truth Jesus came to proclaim. Colossians 2:14 says those "ordinances" were nailed to that cross.” He did EXACTLY as those shadows depicted He was to do.

Now.. in closing.. to explain the shadow so some can understand it better.

Isaiah 46:9-10 says, "Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me, Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:"

Since our God knows the end from the beginning, and 1 Peter 1:19-20 says, "But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you," This then means our Father knew Jesus agreed to die for us long before He actually died. So.. let’s look at the cross the way our Father sees it shall we? Since He can see the end from the beginning, in the day of Moses when the Ordinances were written, the Father already saw far into the future that great light of truth beaming from Calvary. The shadow from that cross extended all the way back to the day Moses penned those Ordinances and placed them in that leather pouch on the side of the ark of the covenant. So.. with the prophetic eye, the people of God way back in the day of Moses followed that same shadow that came from that light of truth on Calvary each time they offered a lamb sacrifice for their sins. By their obedient acts on each feast day, which were a “shadow of things to come” one could see they followed that shadow all the way to the foot of the cross.

ONE LAST THING:

"Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." setting aside, or teaching the abolition of the moral law. "God forbid," says the Apostle, "yea, we establish the law." Nor can an exception be taken to the form of the Apostle's question; for the same word that is rendered "make void" in this verse, is in 2 Corinthians 3:13; Ephesians 2:15; 2 Timothy 1:10, rendered "abolished." Paul has therefore rendered a definite answer to the question under consideration. And the strong language he uses in denying that he taught the abolition of that sacred law, should forever silence those who lay such an accusation against him." -J.N Andrew's Perpetuity of the royal law. p31.1 - 32.1